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erwin
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Post Posted: Thu Mar 06, 2008 1:51 am    Post subject: Reply with quote
Revan wrote:
Imp. Combat Reflexes
Adv. Combat Reflexes

I don't remember the requirements besides combat ref, but basically, they give what I like to call "iterative AO's". If you have ICR and an opponent provokes, you may make 2 AO's instead of 1 per provocation, but the second is at -5. Similar with ACR, at +0, -5, -10. These extra "iterative AO's" still use up Combat Ref AO's. Note that these feats do not affect your actual number of AO's, which is still defined by the Comb Ref feat and Dex mod.

Wow. Need to see that copy. Shocked Cool
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Q
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Post Posted: Fri Mar 07, 2008 5:28 am    Post subject: Reply with quote
Hmm, sorry forgot to add that I assumed that you have Combat Reflexes w/ those feats... What I meant was, if you have at least 2 AOs left in the round, and those two feats triggered (my opponent provoked two AOs simultaneously), can I AO twice w/ no penalty w/o even having the Improved/Greater CReflexes?
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Pitz-Ikko
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Post Posted: Fri Mar 07, 2008 8:33 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote
Q wrote:
Hmm, sorry forgot to add that I assumed that you have Combat Reflexes w/ those feats... What I meant was, if you have at least 2 AOs left in the round, and those two feats triggered (my opponent provoked two AOs simultaneously), can I AO twice w/ no penalty w/o even having the Improved/Greater CReflexes?


That should work just fine. If the AOs are derived from two different sources (different feats), then they could be used in the same round in conjunction with C-Reflexes.
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erwin
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Post Posted: Sun Apr 27, 2008 7:02 am    Post subject: Reply with quote
Is there a way to know that your enemy is readying an action?
Will sense motive skill help?
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boy_bakal
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Post Posted: Sun Apr 27, 2008 8:19 am    Post subject: Reply with quote
You'll know because the DM declares it. In game I think it's a fairly noticeable thing, so it ultimately boils down to DM fiat.

Personally, I'd assume your character is aware of anybody readying actions just as long as s/he is not inattentive Very Happy
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Xtian
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Post Posted: Sun Apr 27, 2008 11:31 am    Post subject: Reply with quote
There should be a description of what the character in question is doing then role-play accordingly.
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Pitz-Ikko
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Post Posted: Thu May 01, 2008 3:22 am    Post subject: Reply with quote
erwin wrote:
Is there a way to know that your enemy is readying an action?
Will sense motive skill help?


RAW, Sense Motive can't help (as readying an action is not really an opposable check). A DM might allow it, though, since it's not that far-fetched.

boy_bakal wrote:
You'll know because the DM declares it. In game I think it's a fairly noticeable thing, so it ultimately boils down to DM fiat.


It is not necessarily the case that the DM 'declares' the readying. He/she may declare that (as a standard action) the enemy seems to prefer to just observe. Or, move then observe.

But then again, it's pretty funny when an enemy just stands there doing nothing for a round of combat.
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BJ
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Post Posted: Thu May 01, 2008 3:59 am    Post subject: Reply with quote
Well, he could be using an SLA to summon a monster. Razz
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Xtian
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Post Posted: Thu May 01, 2008 4:37 am    Post subject: Reply with quote
Quote:
But then again, it's pretty funny when an enemy just stands there doing nothing for a round of combat.


Quote:
Well, he could be using an SLA to summon a monster.


That provokes an AoO assuming someone is threatening him.
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BJ
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Post Posted: Thu May 01, 2008 5:11 am    Post subject: Reply with quote
Never said it wouldn't.

Although the opponent should know if he's using an SLA 1st. Arcane Sight ftw!
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erwin
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Post Posted: Thu May 01, 2008 8:34 am    Post subject: Reply with quote
So there are no RAW about knowing a character whether he readied an action or not?
In that case, as a DM, what would your rule be?
boy_bakal already said his.
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BJ
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Post Posted: Thu May 01, 2008 9:04 am    Post subject: Reply with quote
I won't say he's readying an action; rather, as DM I'll say,

"Vaehrun's fingers edge close to his spell component pouch, but although the glint in his eye betrays his intentions to cast a spell, (sense motive DC10) he seems to be biding his time, waiting for the right opportunity."

OoC (will not tell the players): Vaehrun readies an action to cast a spell if an enemy comes within 15ft of his position.

That's how I'll do it. You don't say what the specific trigger is, but with an easy pass Sense Motive, you can pretty much tell that he's readying an action. Unless, of course, I add bluffing to the equation (which I won't discuss to prevent tediousness)

And if you're an observative player, you've caught me doing this once or twice. Wink
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erwin
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Post Posted: Thu May 01, 2008 9:32 am    Post subject: Reply with quote
Using your example, can I "feint" my readied action so my target (whoever triggered my action) is FF against my spell?
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BJ
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Post Posted: Thu May 01, 2008 12:45 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote
First of all, feinting dosn't cause the flat-footed condition. It denies the dex mod to AC for you next attack.

Secondly,
Rules Compendium wrote:
As a standard action, you can try to mislead an opponent in melee combat so that he can't dodge your next attack effectively

By "feinting your readied action", what exactly do you mean? You feint a punch, or a riposte with a rapier. You don't feint a readied action.

If you mean readying an action to feint, that may work. In that case, the standard action you will use will be your feint attempt. He is then,
Rules Compendium wrote:
If your Bluff check result exceeds your target's Sense Motive check result, your target is denied it's dexterity bonus against the next melee attack you make against it. this attack must be made on or before your next turn.


So you can ready an action to feint, and if successful, your opponent will be denied it's dexterity bonus on your next melee attack (which can be a touch spell, but not a ranged touch spell).
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Xtian
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Post Posted: Thu May 01, 2008 5:16 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote
erwin wrote:
So there are no RAW about knowing a character whether he readied an action or not?
In that case, as a DM, what would your rule be?
boy_bakal already said his.


Actions that you can do in combat are quite limited:
you have move action, standard, swift, immediate, full round, and one round.

Standard action:
- one attack
- cast spell
- spell like ability
- supernatural ability
- ready an action
- many more (maneuvers, activating items, etc)

If you do a move action it is almost always assumed that you'll do a standard action (and vice versa). In combat where most of the time it is a kill or be killed anyone who does "nothing" is very likely to be (1) readying an action, (2) casting silent stilled spell or manifests a power (3) uses spell-like ability, (4) spending few rounds to assasinate, (5) maybe really doing nothing. In the situation I gave you many are mutually exclusive and with a character of having average mental scores your he can most likely think or sense that the enemy is up to something and can react accordingly.

Opponent has pouches, spellbook, and wand and pauses: readying or casting a spell. Did he take a move action? If not maybe casting a summon spell without components.

Opponent is wielding a great sword and as he moves away draws a potion and stop besides his injured friend. More likely readying an action to give the potion to friend. Or maybe he would drop the potion (free action) and slash anyone comes in melee range.

Players have the right to know what's a npc/creature/etc is doing game wise, what he is equipped with (sword/pouch/nothing), appearance (skin and bone, as fat as orcus, heavily muscled), age, etc. Then players must role play accordingly.

And to answer your question, the answer is there is no (direct) raw about knowing whehter a character has readied an action or not. Mundane that is. Detect thoughts can however.
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erwin
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Post Posted: Tue Aug 12, 2008 11:44 am    Post subject: Reply with quote
Hey guys, just discovered this.

Ask Wizards 05/27/2008 wrote:
Q: If a 1st level character takes the Precocious Apprentice feat, is he considered able to cast 2nd level spells for the purposes of qualifying for a prestige class or meeting the prerequisites of a feat?

A: In the Sage’s opinion, the Precocious Apprentice feat would not help you qualify for a prestige class or feat because it gives you a chance at casting a 2nd level spell, not the inherent ability to cast 2nd level spells.


Just in case anyone (still) cares. Laughing

ADD:
Also, this interesting article:

Lol'd at this:
Pirates lol wrote:
5. Stewart asks, I'm running a pirate-themed game, and one member of the party has a few ranks of sorcerer. Running out of battle spells and thinking on her feet, she cast mage hand on a thimble, and wanted to direct it with all five pounds of pressure mage hand allows into an enemy's eye, which she said would be enough to do some damage. Now, this is a pirate game after all, so her ingenuity did nothing but bring joy to this DM's heart. I had her roll a ranged touch attack, she passed it, and the thimble did its gruesome work. But now I've been thinking, “If this is so easy, why isn't everyone doing it?” Thus, I turn to you. Can you use mage hand this way?

Not so much consensus on this one. Many folks would allow some kind of called shot, given a (say it with me) sufficiently high DC. However, others had problems with the interpretation of the spell, specifically the questioner’s use of the phrase “five pounds of pressure”.

The eye, as a fine target on a medium sized creature, should have a +8 to its Armor Class on top of what it normally is for the target. One reason why it's not done terribly often. Second reason being that a thimble as an improvised weapon would receive a -4 penalty to its use, and do only 1 point of damage. A -12 penalty on an attack (all in all) that won't even necessarily blind someone is pretty risky.
--Krys

That is the most creative mage hand I ever heard. But the spell says "object weighing up to 5lb" not "propelled at 5lb of force."

But this made me curious. As a move action the thimble goes up to 15 feet. So in 3s (half a round) it moves 15' (4.572meters) (velocity 1.525meters), assuming a 20g thimble (0.044Ib: remember, weight and mass are different):

Net Force (from magic)= Mass x ( ((2 x Ave Velocity)^2) / (2 x Change in Position) ) F= 0.02kg x ( ((2 x 1.524m/s)^2) / (2 x 4.572m) ) =0.02032 N

or 0.00456Ib of force, it poked the pirate.

A 5Ib object (22.24N, or 2.269kg) would give 2.305N, or 0.5125Ib of force.

This is only an attempt and I can make mistakes. I assumed 1) constant acceleration 2) the planet is earth's size and mass 3) the thimble started at rest 4) Arcane power provides the net force and that this is the force exerted on the eye the instant of impact.
--anonymous

Of course, but then the opponent puts on an eyepatch and gets aura of fear and Charisma +4. It's a pirate game after all!
--Nikolas

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Q
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Post Posted: Wed Aug 13, 2008 1:22 am    Post subject: Reply with quote
The guy from the post above wrote:
Of course, but then the opponent puts on an eyepatch and gets aura of fear and Charisma +4. It's a pirate game after all!


Laughing
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boy_bakal
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Post Posted: Wed Aug 13, 2008 5:13 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote
Ok, first off, lemme start by saying I'm playing a glaive fighter right now. I got to checking the WotC boards for some tips and such and found that there was some discussion on Polearm Gamble's interaction with Combat Superiority.

Long story short, the min-maxers argue that the gamble stops opponent movement before the opponent moves adjacent to the fighter. The rules lawyers argue that the gamble triggers, but since the opponent has already moved, combat superiority doesn't trigger (or does, but the point is moot since the opp is already next to the fighter).

So what's the consensus here, fellas?
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Pitz-Ikko
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Post Posted: Thu Aug 14, 2008 5:05 am    Post subject: Reply with quote
boy_bakal wrote:
Ok, first off, lemme start by saying I'm playing a glaive fighter right now. I got to checking the WotC boards for some tips and such and found that there was some discussion on Polearm Gamble's interaction with Combat Superiority.

Long story short, the min-maxers argue that the gamble stops opponent movement before the opponent moves adjacent to the fighter. The rules lawyers argue that the gamble triggers, but since the opponent has already moved, combat superiority doesn't trigger (or does, but the point is moot since the opp is already next to the fighter).

So what's the consensus here, fellas?


It all boils down to wording.

Polearm Gamble, PH204 wrote:
When a nonadjacent enemy enters a square adjacent to you...


Opportunity Attack, PH290 wrote:
If an enemy leaves a square adjacent to you...


Depends on how you read the rules. In OppAtk, the trigger is *leaving* the square. If you take that to mean you attack once the target is already at square 2 after leaving square 1, then it follows that with Polearm Gamble, you get to attack once the enemy is already adjacent to you (which may or may not be useful to the Ftr).

Of course, there are others who may interpret it to mean that OppAtk is triggered *while the target is leaving*, which means the Ftr gets the attack before the enemy actually gets to square 2, stopping him dead in his tracks. In this case, you get to Polearm Gamble before the enemy gets adjacent to you.
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erwin
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Post Posted: Thu Aug 28, 2008 8:02 am    Post subject: Reply with quote
Let's say I have a wizard/wizard of the spiral tower. He uses his +1 vicious longsword as an implement for his Magic Missile. On his attack, he rolls a natural 20. Will the vicious enhancement trigger, even though it's a weapon enhancement?
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Pitz-Ikko
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Post Posted: Thu Aug 28, 2008 8:27 am    Post subject: Reply with quote
erwin wrote:
Let's say I have a wizard/wizard of the spiral tower. He uses his +1 vicious longsword as an implement for his Magic Missile. On his attack, he rolls a natural 20. Will the vicious enhancement trigger, even though it's a weapon enhancement?


Off-hand, I'd say no. Reading the Implement entry on Wizard:


Implement, Wizard (PH 157) wrote:
...can add its enhancement bonus to the attack rolls and damage rolls...


I take that to mean the "actual" enhancement bonus. In your case, I'd say the viciousness doesn't trigger.

Of course, at the moment, I haven't checked any official ruling or FAQ so... *shrugs*
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BJ
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Post Posted: Thu Aug 28, 2008 11:08 am    Post subject: Reply with quote
Actually, it would. It's a bonus that works on a critical, and is not weapon dependent.

Weapon properties, otoh, won't work. This includes anything that has the phrase, "when you hit with this weapon..."
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Post Posted: Thu Aug 28, 2008 3:38 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote
Yeah, I think I agree. I checked the rulebooks more closely and found the relevant text under "Critical" on PH 225. Although there is that example (about a wizard not being able to benefit from a magic dagger), the WoST is obviously an exceptional case.
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erwin
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Post Posted: Tue Sep 02, 2008 8:07 am    Post subject: Reply with quote
Ok, thanks for the replies guys. Very Happy


Let's say that certain wizard/WotST went epic, and took archmage. He then took Heavy Blade Mastery feat (I don't know why he had that Str and Dex, but let's just say he does have it).
And then he rolled a 19 on his attack roll with Magic Missile with the longsword as implement. Suppose that hit the target's Reflex defense, would that count as a critical?
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BJ
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Post Posted: Fri Sep 19, 2008 4:34 am    Post subject: Reply with quote
Took me a while to figure this out: Embarassed

No. HBM says "melee weapon attacks made with heavy blades". Magic Missile is not a melee attack. Laughing
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BJ
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Post Posted: Fri Sep 19, 2008 4:38 am    Post subject: Reply with quote
Ask Wizards wrote:
Q: Can I use teleportation to stand up?

A: No. Standing up from a prone position requires a move action, even if you can teleport to a different location.


Okay, so I misinterpreted that rule. Now Ereth can't use Fey Step to stand. @.@
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erwin
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Post Posted: Mon Sep 29, 2008 6:03 am    Post subject: Reply with quote
Revan wrote:

-How do Mercurial Rod and Vicious Rod interact?
-How do Rod of Corruption and Rod of Reaving interact? (no longer so hot with this combo, but still interesting...)


If holding both Rod of Corruption and Rod of Reaving (I believe you intend to use this on minions), here's what will happen:

>You place a Warlock's Curse on a minion.
>Rod of reaving will trigger, dealing 1 damage on it, and thus killing it.
>Rod of corruption will trigger after, forgoing you pact boon benefit and instead transfering the curse to all enemies within original target.
>Now this part I'm not sure, and only IMO
Since Rod of Reaving only triggers when you placed it (meaning the curse came from you) and not when everytime someone gets your warlovk's curse (Rod of Corruption transfers the curse, not place new ones), rod of reaving won't retrigger.

Now, transfer seems a weird word to use there, as he multiplied the number of curses as well (assuming there are more than 1 enemies within range). So it's actually depends on interpretation.


I'll be back about Mercurial Rod and Vicious Rod, as I haven't seen them yet.
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BJ
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Post Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 6:13 am    Post subject: Reply with quote
I contest erwin's interpretation. WotC CustServ is clearly in the position that you can only use one implement at a time. The interpretation here is what "at a time" means. To me, I interpret that as one action. Both Rod of Reaving and Rod of Corruption would then trigger at the same time, but you have to choose which one to activate because you can only use one implement at a time.

I would like to post this one up:

http://www.wizards.com/default.asp?x=dnd/4ask/20081110

It seems extra damage comes firts before resistances. My original interpretation, based on p.176 of the DMG, is thus incorrect. (some people who have played in my games may have encountered me applying insubstantial before applying vulnerability, sneak attack et al)
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erwin
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Post Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 7:27 am    Post subject: Reply with quote
BJ wrote:
I contest erwin's interpretation. WotC CustServ is clearly in the position that you can only use one implement at a time. The interpretation here is what "at a time" means. To me, I interpret that as one action. Both Rod of Reaving and Rod of Corruption would then trigger at the same time, but you have to choose which one to activate because you can only use one implement at a time.


Ok, so you mean when using one implement, the other implement is "down", even it's properties? I find that weird. It's as if your other implement is mundane.

I interpret one implement at a time as you could only use one of the implements you have when trying to get the enhancement bonus to atk/damage, thus not allowing players to get multiple implements and adding all bonuses to atk/damage. But I think the properties and item powers of both implement would work.
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Post Posted: Mon Nov 10, 2008 7:41 am    Post subject: Reply with quote
And I don't. You can only mentally receive the benefits of one implement at a time, in the same way that you can only use one amulet at a time, even if the character can physically wear two or more.

I'll try to find the link somewhere. CustServ dealt with this issue extensively (I think it's in enworld somewhere)

EDIT: It seems Enworld cleans up their threads. The older threads (September and beforehand) are gone. But I assure you, it's not that they are non-functional, you just can't use it in conjunction with another implement.
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